1  Aerodrome Regulations

1. Pilots of non-commercial (General Aviation) flights arriving from abroad are required to report to Customs at the Designated Customs Clearance Office in the Business Aviation Terminal.

2. Use governed by regulations applicable to Stansted CTR.

3. All aircraft must be able to communicate by radio

4. Pilots must be specially attentive to RTF callsigns used by ATC on the Ground Frequency. Although the RTF channel is shared by aircraft and vehicular traffic, pilots may not hear the transmissions of vehicle drivers, only the responses from ATC.

5. H24, subject to the prior approval of the Managing Director, Stansted Airport Ltd and to prior acceptance to the flight by the Stansted Airport Scheduling Organisation, Airport Co-ordination Ltd (ACL).

6. All flights operating at Stansted require a slot allocation by the airport co-ordinator, (ACL). Operators are advised to review current Stansted Directors Notices on ad-hoc slot allocations and Night restrictions which reflect the airports co-ordinated status

7. Requests for ad-hoc slot allocations should be made to ACL during working hours 0900-1700 Monday to Friday by telephone: 020-8564 0600 or outside of these times to Stansted Airside Operations, by telephone: 01279-662478. Operators are advised that the availability of ad-hoc slots during peak periods is likely to be extremely limited.

8. The Business Aviation Terminal is open between 0600-2200 local time daily and is available outside these times by prior arrangement with the operator (Harrods Aviation Ltd). Customs and Immigration are routinely available at the Business Aviation Terminal between 0730-2130 local time daily. Control Authority coverage outside of these times may be arranged through the nominated handling agent. Additional charges may apply.

9. Planned Diversion Procedure - airline and other operators are advised that before selecting Stansted as an alternate, prior arrangements for ground handling, maintenance and aircraft recovery should be in place. Nothing in this procedure shall, however, prevent an aircraft that has a declared emergency from landing

10. Fixed Electrical Ground Power (FEGP) must be used whenever available and serviceable. Use of aircraft Auxiliary Power Units (APUs), and diesel Ground Power Units is subject to strict controls as set out in published airport regulations. Between the hours 0600-2330 (local), APUs should be shut down as soon as practicable following arrival and not restarted until 10 minutes prior to departure, except when the outside air temperature (as promulgated by ATC) is below +5°C or above +20°C. Between 2331 and 0559 (local), except when immediately prior to departure, APUs may not be run without notification to Stansted Airside Operations +44(0)1279-662478.

2  Ground Movement

1. General

   1. Directions issued by ATC should be followed precisely. RTF transmissions must be brief, concise and kept to a minimum

   2. Within the manoeuvring area pilots will be cleared to and from the stands under general direction from GMC and are reminded of the importance of maintaining a good lookout at all times.

   3. Departing aircraft, on first contact with Stansted ATC, must state aircraft type, stand number, ATIS code letter, QNH received, and then maintain a listening watch at all times

   4. Clearance is available for departing aircraft approximately 25 minutes before departure on the Delivery frequency (when open-status broadcast on ATIS), otherwise Ground, and must be obtained at least 10 minutes before start up to allow data to be processed - failure to do may incur delays

   5. Pre-departure clearance by datalink is available at Stansted for suitably equipped aircraft. For further information contact ATC Operations, Tel: +44 (0)1279-669389.

   6. Stansted Airport is equipped with an advanced surface movement radar utilising Mode-S.

      1. Aircraft operators intending to use London Stansted Airport should ensure that Mode-S transponders are able to operate when the aircraft is on the ground.

      2. Flight crew should select XPNDR or the equivalent according to specific installation, AUTO if available, not OFF or STDBY, and the assigned Mode-A code:

         (aa) From the request for push back or taxi, whichever is earlier.

         (bb) After landing, continuously until the aircraft is fully parked on stand.

      3. After parking the Mode-A code 2000 must be set before selecting OFF or STDBY.

      4. Flight crew of aircraft equipped with Mode-S having an aircraft identification feature should also set the aircraft identification. This setting is the aircraft identification specified in Item 7 of the ICAO ATC Flight Plan. The aircraft identification should be entered from the request for pushback or taxi, whichever is earlier, through the FMS or the Transponder Control Panel.

2. Aprons

   1. Pilots should only request push back (with tug attached) when they are actually ready to do so.

   2. Within the Alpha, Bravo, Charlie and Zulu cul-de-sacs aircraft should take care to use the taxilane as directed by the GMC controller (ie: East, West or middle). Pilots are responsible for ensuring they do not accept a clearance to use a taxilane centre-line which is not approved for their aircraft type.

3. De-icing Pad Operations

   1. Remote de-icing operations will occur when snow is falling and accumulating and shall be promulgated by Stansted Airport Ltd Airside Operations.

   2. Remote de-icing is only available to operators who have a pre-agreement with Stansted Airport Ltd.

   3. Remote de-icing – Operation

      1. Flight crew shall notify ATC that remote de-icing will be required prior to aircraft pushback via datalink where available.

      2. Flight crew shall simultaneously contact their respective handling agent to request remote de-icing.

      3. Flight crew shall request push and start as per normal. ATC shall direct the aircraft to the de-icing pad.

      4. Upon entering the pad, flight crew shall park the aircraft in line with the respective Painted Stop Arrow and Omni-directional Red Lights.

      5. Once parked the flight crew shall contact the pad controller via the appropriate frequency, and confirm that the parking brake is set, engines are at idle power and the de-icing required.

      6. The pad controller shall confirm the de-icing requirements, and shall authorise the de-icing vehicles to approach the aircraft and begin de-icing operations. The pad controller shall park their vehicle in front of the aircraft, in line-of-sight of the flight crew to manage de-icing operations.

      7. On completion of de-icing operations, the pad controller shall confirm that all de-icing operations have been completed, that vehicles have vacated the manoeuvring area, advise the anti-icing code, the litreage used and areas treated. Once this has been acknowledged by the flight crew the pad controller shall vacate the manoeuvring area. Flight crew shall contact ATC for further taxi.

   4. Remote de-icing – Emergency Procedures

      1. Should an aircraft emergency develop during de-icing pad operations, flight crews are to select all nose landing lighting and contact ATC. Upon seeing the illuminated lights, all de-icing vehicles shall vacate manoeuvring area.

4. It is the Commander’s responsibility not to accept an ATC clearance into an area not approved for the type of aircraft.

5. Pilots are reminded that RTF contact must be maintained with ATC whilst engaged in compass swings on the Compass Base or engine runs in the Ground Run Pen.

6. During Runway 04 operations aircraft on Golf taxiway with wingspan greater than 36 m can expect to cross the runway at V for departure.

7. On vacating the Runway contact ATC, hold position and await taxi instruction

8. Taxiway Hotel, Link D, has a maximum wingspan of 51.9 m

3  CAT II/III Operations

1. Runways 04 and 22, subject to serviceability of the required facilities, are suitable for Category ll/lll operations by operators whose minima have been accepted by the Civil Aviation Authority.

2. During Category ll/lll operations, special ATC procedures (ATC Low Visibility Procedures) will be applied. Pilots will be informed when these procedures are in operation by ATIS broadcast or by RTF.

3. Departing aircraft: ATC will require departing aircraft to use the following Category ll/lll holding points:
   Runway 04 – Golf 3, Whisky 3, Hotel 3, Kilo 3 or Lima 3;
   Runway 22 – Quebec 3, Romeo 3 or Sierra 3.
   Occasionally, it may be necessary for other departure points to be used at the discretion of ATC.

4. Arriving aircraft: All appropriate runway exits are illuminated, and pilots should select the first convenient exit. Runway vacation will be assessed as being when the aircraft has passed the last of the alternate yellow and green centre-line lights. These lights denote the extent of the ILS Localizer sensitive area. Surface Movement Radar (SMR) is available to monitor pilot ‘runway vacated’ reports.

5. When Low Visibility Procedures are in force a much reduced landing rate can be expected due to the requirement for increased spacing between arriving aircraft. In addition to the prevailing weather conditions, such factors as equipment serviceability may also have an impact on actual landing rates. For information and planning purposes, the approximate landing rates that can be expected are:

   IRVR (m	Expected Landing Rate
   Greater than 1000	24
   Between 1000 and 600	20
   Between 550 and 350	15
   Less than 300	12 or less

4  Warnings

1. Extensive instrument flying takes place in vicinity of airport.

2. Trees in 22 Approach/04 Take-off relate to highest in large wooded area.

5  Helicopter Operations

1. Helicopters will land and depart from the area marked as ‘H’ on Taxiway Foxtrot (See AD 2.16), between 0700 and 2300 Local when visibility is greater than 1500 m and cloud ceiling greater than 300 ft. Before departing from Stansted, pilots must make positive contact with tower controller before permission to depart is given.

2. When weather conditions are less than those stated above, landing and departing helicopters must use the runway.

3. Approach to helicopter landing area ‘H’ is from the west, passing north of Bury Lodge Hotel and remaining clear of Burton End. Helicopters inbound from the east should normally pass over the appropriate runway threshold (not below 500 ft) before commencing approach from the west, thus providing separation from parked and fixed obstructions, particularly in marginal weather.

4. Helicopters landing from or departing to the west are requested to avoid overflight of Birchanger, Stansted Mountfitchet and Bishops Stortford where possible.

5. Helicopters alighting or departing to/from the area marked as ‘H’ on Taxiway Foxtrot must ground or air taxi as instructed by ATC.

6. If the forecast or actual meteorological reports indicate that Stansted might be/is experiencing visibility less than 1500 m and/or a cloud ceiling below 300 ft, pilots of inbound helicopters should contact the Terminal Control Group Supervisor (North) on 023-8048 1103 before departure to obtain an indication of likely delays and if necessary to obtain an EAT. Pilots of all inbound helicopters should note that if the visibility is less than 1500 m and/or the cloud ceiling below 300 ft, they may be required to hold outside CAS until they can be integrated into the traffic sequence and that in the event of a high controller workload such holding may have to be carried out without radar service.

6  Use of Runways

1. Special runway utilisation procedures are detailed at GEN 3.3.3.

2. When Runway 04 is in use a right hand circuit is in force.

3. Wake Turbulence – Departures

   1. Runway 04 holding points H1/H3, K1/K3 and L1/L3 are considered to be the same point for the purposes of departure wake turbulence separation. Runway 22 holding points Q1/Q3 and R1/R3, S1/S3 and P3 are considered to be the same point for the purposes of departure wake turbulence separation.

   2. On departure, when in receipt of a line up clearance, the pilot must inform ATC before entering the runway, if greater wake turbulence separation will be required behind preceding aircraft than that laid down in UK AIC P 001/2015. Failure to do so may result in additional delay.

4. Wake Turbulence – Arrivals

   For the purposes of spacing in the approach phase the following aircraft types are classified as Upper Medium for Wake Turbulence separation: B707, B757, DC-8 and IL62. All other ‘Medium’ aircraft types are classified as Lower Medium. Wake turbulence separations are in accordance with the 5 Group Scheme and are detailed in UK AIC P 001/2015.

5. Minimum Runway Occupancy – Departures

   1. On receipt of line up clearance, pilots should ensure commensurate with safety and standard operating procedures, that they are able to taxi into the correct position at the hold and line up on the runway as soon as the preceeding aircraft has commenced either its take off roll or landing run.

   2. Whenever possible cockpit checks should be completed prior to line up and any checks requiring completion whilst on the runway should be kept to the minimum required. Pilots should ensure that they are able to commence the take off roll as soon as clearance is issued

   3. Pilots not able to comply with these requirements should notify ATC as soon as possible once transferred to the Stansted Tower frequency.

   4. Pilots of aircraft with wingspan greater than 36 m should not proceed beyond the Cat III holding points G3 and W3 unless instructed to do so by ATC. This may result in fluctuations in the glidepath signal and, subject to weather conditions, inbound traffic established on the ILS may be asked to make a visual approach or localiser only approach whilst the restricted area is infringed.

   5. Pilots should never cross Holding Point Red Stop bars.

6. Minimum Runway Occupancy – Arrivals

   Runway 04	Taxiway PR	Taxiway QR	Taxiway Q
   Distance from threshold (m)	1566	1844	2240
   Design exit speed (kt)	52	52	N/A

   Runway 22	Taxiway NR	Taxiway LR	Taxiway L
   Distance from threshold (m)	1276	1891	2336
   Design exit speed (kt)	52	52	N/A

   1. Pilots are reminded that rapid exit from the runway will enable ATC to apply minimum spacing on final approach and will minimise the risk of ‘go-arounds’.

   2. Commensurate with safety, pilots should expedite their landing roll to vacate via the first available RET at the design exit speed.

   3. Where possible, pilots should exit at PR during Runway 04 operations. Tactical extension to the landing roll of any distance is prohibited unless authorised by ATC. Pilots are not to vacate at Q1.

   4. Aircraft expecting to park on the north side of the airfield may be required to vacate via a RET to the south side during high intensity operations. ATC will advise the pilot accordingly on final approach.

   5. Alternative vacating preferences may only be given at the discretion of ATC.

7. Runway Vacation Guidleines

   1. Due to high intensity Runway Operations at Stansted it is necessary to ensure Pilots adhere to the following guidelines:

      Aircraft are not to stop on any runway exit awaiting instructions from Ground Movement Control. If a landing aircraft cannot contact GMC due to RTF congestion the pilot should fully vacate the runway and taxi into the first available taxiway block. The pilot should then hold position until contact with GMC can be established.

8. Runway Crossing Procedure

   1. Aircraft and vehicles which are required to cross active runways will be issued instructions by the Ground Movement Controller, which will include a holding point as a clearance limit, at which the aircraft or vehicle will be required to hold short of the active runway.

   2. When reaching the clearance limit specified in the taxiing instructions, the aircraft or vehicle will be instructed to change frequency to that of the Air Controller of the appropriate runway.

   3. After crossing the runway and having reported ‘Runway Vacated’ with the Air Controller, the aircraft or vehicle will be instructed to contact the GMC frequency for further clearance. In the absence of further clearance it is essential that the aircraft or vehicle HOLD position when clear of the runway.

7  Training

1. The use of this aerodrome for training is prohibited. The deliberate simulation of engine failure is not permitted whilst on approach to or departure from the aerodrome. It is not permitted to fly an approach to the aerodrome with the intention to execute a missed approach from training purposes.

1  Procedures for Inbound Aircraft under IFR

1. Inbound via the Airways System

   1. The Standard Arrival Routes (STAR) for aircraft inbound to London Stansted are shown at AD 2-EGSS-7-1 to AD 2-EGSS-7-6.

   2. The Terminal Holding facility at LOREL/ASKEY and at ABBOT/CASEY is shared with arrivals to both London Luton and Cambridge airports and therefore some STAR designators are shared.

   3. Aircraft may be vectored off the routes for separation purposes. When separation has been achieved ATC will give an approximate track to resume the STAR via the appropriate VOR radial or fix.

2. Inbound other than on Airways

   1. Aircraft wishing to enter the London Stansted CTR/CTA direct from the London Flight Information Region are required to obtain ATC clearance at least 10 minutes before reaching the CTR or CTA boundary, when they will be advised of the route to be followed consistent with the current traffic situation.

   2. Except where required by the Instrument Approach Procedures, inbound aircraft to London Stansted, whether in VMC or IMC, should comply with the Noise Abatement procedures for arriving aircraft as detailed in Section AD 2.21.

3. Approach Procedures - with Radar Control

   1. When inbound traffic is being sequenced by Radar, the Approach procedure will be flown under directions from the appropriate Radar Controller, and will consist of that part of the approach between the holding pattern and the Final Approach Track.

   2. Once the aircraft is under Approach Radar Control changes of heading or Flight Level/Altitude will be made only on instructions from the Radar Controller, except in the case of radio communications failure in the aircraft or at the Radar Unit

   3. Headings and Flight Levels/Altitudes to leave the holding facility will be passed by ATC. When holding is not necessary, radar vectors may be given prior to the aircraft reaching the holding pattern and descent clearance will include an estimate of track distance to touchdown.

   4. Procedures specific to Runway 22 arrivals via LOREL and ABBOT STARs.
      Further distance information will be given between initial descent clearance and intercept heading to the ILS. On receipt of descent clearance the pilot will descend at the rate he judges will be best suited to the achievement of continuous descent, the object being to join the glidepath at the appropriate height for the distance without recourse to level flight.

   5. Pilots should typically expect the following speed restrictions to be enforced: 220 kt from the holding facility during the intermediate approach phase; thereafter, and until established on final approach, the highest possible speed within the band 160 – 180 kt; when established on the ILS and thereafter until 4DME, 165 kt with a tolerance of +/- 5kt.
      
      These speeds are applied for ATC separation and runway capacity purposes and are mandatory. In the event of a new (non-speed related) ATC clearance being issued (eg an instruction to descend on ILS), pilots are not absolved from a requirement to maintain a previously allocated speed. All speed restrictions are to be flown as accurately as possible. Aircraft unable to conform to these speeds should inform ATC and state what speeds will be used. In the interests of accurate spacing, pilots are requested to comply with speed adjustments as promptly as feasible within their own operational constraints, advising ATC if circumstances necessitate a change of speed for aircraft performance reasons.

   6. The spacing provided between aircraft will be designed to achieve the maximum runway utilisation within the parameters of safe separation minima (including vortex effect) and runway occupancy. It is important to the validity of the separation provided that runway occupancy time is kept to a minimum consistent with the prevailing conditions.

   7. In the event of radar failure, new instructions will be issued to each aircraft under radar control and the procedures as defined for Approach without radar control, will be put into effect.

   8. In the event of radio communications failure at the Radar Unit, pilots should contact Aerodrome Control for further instructions.

4. Approach Procedures without Radar Control

   When inbound traffic is not being sequenced by Radar, aircraft will be cleared from the Holding Fix to carry out the appropriate Instrument Approach procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-7/7-8.

2  Procedures for Outbound Aircraft

1. Standard Instrument Departure Procedures are detailed at AD 2-EGSS-6-1 to AD 2-EGSS-6-5.

2. Departure Speed Restriction: In order to optimise the departure flow and assist in the separation between successive departing aircraft a speed limit of 250 kt IAS below FL 100 is applicable until removed by ATC. ATC may remove the speed restriction by using the phrase ‘No ATC Speed Restriction’. Pilots are reminded that this phrase does not relieve the pilot of the responsibility to adhere to the ground track of the Noise Preferential Route, which may require a speed/power limitation.

3. If for any reason pilots are unable to comply with the 250 kt IAS speed restriction the pilot should immediately advise ATC and state the minimum speed acceptable. If a pilot anticipates before departure that they will be unable to comply with the speed restriction, they should inform ATC when requesting start-up clearance, stating the minimum speed acceptable. In this case the pilot will be informed before take-off of any higher speed limitation.

4. Flights via airways to Luton are to file a BKY SID as far as BKY and route BKY-BUSTA-LOREL.

3  Radio Communications Failure Procedures

In the event of complete radio communication failure in an aircraft, the pilot is to adopt the appropriate procedures notified in ENR 1.1.3, with the exceptions described below:

1. Aircraft inbound to London Stansted or Cambridge via LOREL † or ABBOT ‡

   1. When complete communication failure occurs in the aircraft before ETA, or before EAT, when this has been received and acknowledged the aircraft will:

      1. continue to the appropriate holding point LOREL † or ABBOT ‡ as detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-1 to 7-6;

      2. hold until the last acknowledged ETA plus 10 minutes, or EAT when this has been given;

      3. then commence descent for landing in accordance with the approach procedure for the runway in use and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to continue visually).

   2. If complete radio failure occurs after an aircraft has reported to ATC on reaching the holding point the aircraft will:

      1. Maintain the last assigned level at LOREL † or ABBOT ‡ until:

         aa ATA over the holding point plus 10 minutes or 10 minutes after the last acknowledged communication with ATC whichever is the later; or

         bb EAT when this has been received and acknowledged.

      2. then commence descent for landing in accordance with the approach procedure for the runway in use and effect a landing within 30 minutes (or later if able to continue visually).

   3. Radio failure during a Radar Directed Initial Approach to London Stansted

      If complete radio failure occurs after clearance to descend to an altitude has been given during a radar directed initial approach, the following procedure should be adopted:

      1. continue visually or by means of an appropriate final approach aid;

      2. if not possible, maintain 3000 ft ALT or last assigned altitude if higher and proceed to BKY VOR, then;

      3. hold at BKY VOR for 5 minutes (Holding axis 270° MAG inbound track (BKY RDL 090°), turning left at the facility, Max IAS 220 kt), then;

      4. descend in the holding pattern if necessary to 3000 ft ALT, then;

      5. leave BKY VOR on RDL 197 (Runway 04) or RDL 070 (Runway 22) to join the Initial Approach Procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-7-7 or 7-8;

      6. in the event of a missed approach, follow the Missed Approach Procedure to BKY VOR and adopt the basic radio failure procedure detailed at ENR 1.1.3

   4. The route and level to be used when leaving Controlled Airspace in accordance with the procedures given at ENR 1.1.3 is as follows:

   Position at time of decision	Route
   ABBOT/CASEY LOREL ASKEY BKY VOR	Turn right onto track 360°M at last assigned level. Turn left onto BPK VOR RDL 030° at last assigned level. Turn left onto LAM VOR RDL 360° at last assigned level. BKY VOR RDL 360° at 3000 ft ALT.
   † ASKEY when BPK VOR is out of service	‡ CASEY when BKY VOR is out of service.

2. Outbound Aircraft

   1. All outbound traffic except those operating on NUGBO 1R/1S: Comply with the route and altitude limitations detailed in the allocated Stansted Instrument Departure Procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-6 or ATC clearance and commence climb to flight planned level after the last position at which an altitude is specified.

   2. Outbound traffic operating on NUGBO 1R/1S: If a clearance to climb or re-routing instructions have not been given, comply with the route and altitude limitations detailed in the allocated Stansted Instrument Departure Procedure detailed at AD 2-EGSS-6-1/6-2, then route via M183 to SILVA; at SILVA, commence climb to flight planned level.

4  Special VFR Flight

1. Clearance may be requested for Special VFR flight within the London Stansted CTR and will be given whenever the traffic situation permits. Special VFR flights are subject to the general conditions laid down at ENR 1.4

   Pilots holding a Private Pilots Licence (Aeroplanes) are reminded of the flight visibility requirements for Special VFR flight laid down in Schedule 7 of the Air Navigation Order 2009 and the related notification at ENR 1-4, para 2.4.1.1 note 4 (j).

2. Aircraft may be subject to radar vectoring whilst within the CTR if, due to the traffic situation, ATC considers it necessary. Pilots are reminded that they must at all times when operating on a Special VFR Clearance, remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface and in flight conditions which will enable them to determine their flight path and remain clear of obstacles. Pilots must inform the radar controller if compliance with these requirements entails a change of heading or level.

3. Pilots are reminded that a Special VFR clearance applies only to flight within the CTR and does not extend to flight within the surrounding airspace of the London TMA or London Luton airspace

4. In order to reduce conflict with IFR flights, Special VFR arriving and departing flights will normally be cleared not above 1500 ft ALT via the following routes.

   1. Audley End Railway Station VRP via M11 Motorway;

   2. Great Dunmow VRP via B1256 (old A120) and Takeley Village;

   3. Puckeridge VRP via A120 Trunk road avoiding Bishops Stortford .

   4. Nuthampsted VRP.

5  VFR Flights

1. VFR flights inbound to London Stansted or transitting the Stansted CTR/CTA should contact Essex Radar at least five minutes prior to the CTR/CTA boundary and must not enter the CTR/CTA unless clearance has been given.

2. VFR flights will be given routeing instructions and/or altitude restrictions in order to integrate VFR flights with other traffic. Clearance may be subject to delay or re-routeing. Pilots should anticipate clearance with reference to the Visual Reference Points detailed below.

3. In order to reduce conflict with IFR flights, VFR arriving and departing flights will normally be cleared not above 2000 ft ALT via the routes detailed in paragraph 4 d.

4. Pilots are reminded of the Stansted Transponder Mandatory Zones and of the close proximity of busy minor aerodromes.

5. Visual Reference Points (VRP) detailed below are established to facilitate the routes detailed in paragraphs 4d and 5b and to enable pilots of transit flights to plan alternative routes around the CTR/CTA when traffic conditions require.

6  Helicopters

1. Helicopters inbound to or overflying London Stansted Airport may be required to hold at the following additional VRPs within the aerodrome boundary for integration with arriving and departing flights:

   • From the North:

     North end of Hangar 7 †.

   • From the South:

     Hangar 8 (clear of the airside road) (515240N 0001409E).

     † See AD 2-EGSS-2-1 for aerodrome chart

2. Helicopters positioning from the VRPs to either the Helicopter Aiming Point or the runway shall maintain at least 500 ft agl until aligned with the let down point.

7  Transponder Mandatory Zone Access

1. Suitably equipped aircraft may access a Stansted TMZ without ATC approval although such traffic is strongly recommended to afford itself of either an ATSOCA service or make use of an appropriate Monitoring Code (see ENR 1.6, para 2.2.5) if available.

2. The pilot of an aircraft that wishes to operate in a Stansted TMZ without serviceable transponder equipment as defined in GEN 1.5 para 5.3 may be granted access to the TMZ subject to specific ATC approval. This approval may be obtained from Farnborough Radar on frequency 132.800 during their hours of operation (0800-2000 Winter (Summer 1hr earlier)) or from Essex Radar on frequency 120.625, at other times.

8  Fixed Wing, Gliding, Hang-Gliding, Paragliding and Microlight Activity - Stansted CTR/CTA

1. Microlight and fixed wing activity takes place during daylight hours at Audley End. The Audley End Operating Area is delineated by reference to the eastern and southern boundaries of an easily identified forest area defined as the airspace from the surface to 1500 ft amsl including that portion of the Stansted CTR contained within the following positions:
   520009N 0001341E (CTR boundary) then clockwise to 515937N 0001351E - 515926N 0001347E - 515920N 0001329E - 515919N 0001225E (CTR boundary).

2. Intense gliding activity within the Andrewsfield ATZ, a circle, 2 nm radius centred at 515342N 0002657E. Refer to AD 2 EGSL for more details.

3. Microlight activity takes place during daylight hours at Hunsdon Aerodrome and part of the Stansted CTR up to altitude 1000 ft within the area defined by straight lines joining successively the following points:
   514927N 0000226E - 515001N 0000415E - 514929N 0000537E - 514705N 0000357E - 514706N 0000157E - 514654N 0000123E - 514824N 0000051W - 514905N 0000030W - 514917N 0000127W - 515041N 0000039W - 514927N 0000226E.